Question 1: Does Michel Foucault describe prostitution in a way that makes it look acceptable?
Question 2: How have women not liberated themselves from the social norms of sexuality in marriages ?
In chapter one of “The History of Sexuality” by Michel Foucault, Foucault focuses on the beginning of the establishment of the sexual norms that have developed into the late nineteenth century. He or she even implies it is currently still seen in our society.
Foucault explains or claims that before the Victorian regime which was around the late 16th century people did not care as much for public nudity or public discussion when it came to sex. That it was acceptable for children to even talk about it.
However when the victorian regime took over the social construction of marriage surrounded itself around secrecy and a sexual monarchy.
Sex outside of marriage and divorce was seen as taboo and looked upon in society. Foucault makes statements about prostitutes and so on. Stating they challenged the social norms in a victorian regime society, whatever that has to do with it. Honestly I think they personally needed money and manual labor was out of their physical and social boundaries so they resorted to selling their bodies. Which should not be praised as sexually revolutionizing as Foucault does. Foucault also implements capitalism into this chapter to show the transitioning of society into one that is more strict and male dominating in the sexual aspect. During a time when labor exploitation was vital marriages did not have the time to explore into sexual endeavors or exploration. That marriage and sex only clear reason and purpose was to reproduce. So played the role into demeaning women. Also giving insight into the transitioning of power in marriages and the abuse of sex in a relationship had caused the repression of women in marriages.

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